However the reason that the first view is correct is a...
However the reason that the first view is correct is a tradition which Qazi Hussein-ibn-Mas'oud Baghwi has brought in his book "Commentary of Sunnat ar-Rasul" (which is a collection of all those traditions which are in agreement) and he quotes its reference from Abdur-Rahman-ibn-Laili who said: - 'Ka'ab- ibn-Ajza met me and said - "Should I present you with something which I heard from the Messenger of Allah?" I replied: 'Yes give it to me.' He said: I asked the Holy Prophet as to how one should send salutations upon them - the Ahlul-Bait.
The Holy Prophet (S.A.W.A) replied: ('O Allah, send salutations upon Muhammad and his descendants just as Thou sends salutations upon Ibrahim and his descendants and send blessings upon Muhammad and his descendants just as Thou sends blessings upon Ibrahim and his descendants. Surely Thou art All -Praiseworthy and All- Glorious).
Thereafter he says: - The Holy Prophet interpreted his Ahlul-Bait as his "??- Aâl" Thus both are similar as far as their meaning is concerned and Hazrat interchanged one word for the other in a manner that his (??) are his Ahlul-Bait and his Ahlul-Bait are his (??). Therefore, on this basis, "??-Aâl" and "??? - Ahl" are similar in meaning. The reality of this affair can be discovered from here that 28-The author of Kanz-ul-Ummal (vol. 7, pg.
returns back every noun to its original form. The reason that the second view is correct is a tradition, which the traditionists have brought in their books.
Moreover, Imam Muslim-ibn-Hajjaj, Abu Dawoud and Nesa'ee are unanimous in the authenticity of this tradition and each one of them have, in their respective 'Sahihs' narrated from Abdul- Muttalib-ibn Rabiya-ibn-Haaris as such: 'I heard the Holy Prophet (SAWA) saying: - It is not that alms is filth and is not permissible for Muhammad and his (??), to eat from it.