Why was the Ijma not practicable there or why did they not resort to it?
📌Why was the Ijma not practicable there or why did they not resort to it? No answer. Important Point The writer goes so far as to say that the Shia belief or Shi’ism took its form gradually on the ladder of events. That it was product of accidents and a manufacture of episodes is completely untrue. We reiterate that the Shia belief or Shi’ism is rooted in Islam. As the Book said so it is; as the Prophet demonstrated so it is.
A great scholar, Aban Bin Taqlab, of the Sunni thought, was asked as to what a Shia and Shi’ism is. He replied: “A Shia is he who follows Ali (as). If for instance all the companions or associates of the Prophet (S) happened to agree over an issue and Ali happened to differ from it, or the whole Nation agreed over a thing and Imam Ja’far Sadiq’s word differed with it, a Shia would obey the Imam’s word.” The authority is the word of the Imam, although ‘Ijma’ might have preceded it.
The Imam is immune from sin and the Shia depends on the Imam and act by his guidance. The oldest Sunni sources have confirmed the truth of Shi’ism. Previous…
✦ ✦ ✦